MBBS SAMPLE ENTRANCE TEST
FOR F.Sc Students
ENTRANCE SELF-TEST-2011
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Total MCQs: 220
Max. Marks: 1100 Time Allowed: 150 Minutes
Choose single best option
PHYSICS
Q.1 At the present time, how many frontiers of fundamental science are there:
A) Two
B) Three
C) One
D) Four
Q.2 The unit of pressure in base unit is:
A) Kg ms-2
B) Kg ms2
C) Kg m-1
s-2
D) Kg m-1
s-1
Q.3 The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration in body is called:
A) Force
B) Momentum
C) Centripetal force
D) Torque
Q.4 A man in an elevator ascending with an acceleration will conclude that his weight
has:
A) Decreased
B) Increased
C) Reduced to zero
D) Remained constant
Q.5 The Law of conservation of mass gives us the equation of:
A) Stoke’s law
B) Continuity
C) Bernoulli’s theorem
D) Torricelli’s theorem
Q.6 1 torr is equal to :
A) 135.3 Nm-2
B) 133.3 Nm-2
C) 132.3 Nm-2
D) 130.3 Nm-2
Q.7 Viscosity of liquids with rise in temperature:
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) First decreases then increases
Q.8 The phenomenon of polarization of light reveals that light waves are:
A) Extremely short waves
B) Longitudinal waves
C) Transverse electromagnetic waves
D) Long wavelength waves
Q.9 Diffraction of X-rays by crystals show that:
A) X-rays are just like visible light
B) X-rays are electromagnetic waves
C) X-rays have very short wavelength
D) The intensity of X-rays is high
Q.10 The image of an object 7mm high is only 1.4 cm high. The magnification produced by
lens is:
A) 0.7
B) 1
C) 2
D) 0.2
Q.11 Infra-red signals travel through optical fibres of wavelength about:
A) 2 µm B) 1.3 µm
41
C) 1.5 µm D) 1.9 µm
Q.12 Total energy of a body executing simple harmonic motion is directly proportional to:
A) The amplitude
B) Square root of amplitude
C) Reciprocal of amplitude
D) Square of amplitude
Q.13 The wavelength of the wave produced in a microwave oven is:
A) 15 cm
B) 13 cm
C) 12 cm
D) 10 cm
Q.14 The frequencies of ultrasonic waves are:
A) In audible range
B) Greater than 20 kHz
C) Lower than 20 kHz
D) Greater than 20 Hertz
Q.15 A train is approaching a station at 90 Kmh-1
sounding a whistle of frequency 1000Hz.
What will be the apparent frequency of the whistle as heard by a listener sitting on
the platform?
A) 1079.4 Hz
B) 1179.4 Hz
C) 1078.5 Hz
D) 1178.5 Hz
Q.16 Mathematical notation for “ NAND” gate is:
A) B A X + =
B)
________
B . A = X
C)
__ __
.B A X =
D) B . A = X
Q.17 Heat leaves a system; it is taken as:
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Neither positive nor negative
D) Zero
Q.18 First Law of Thermodynamics is the Law of:
A) Conservation of momentum
B) Conservation of Energy
C) Conservation of mass
D) Conservation of velocity
Q.19 Increase in temperature is due to increase in:
A) Translational K.E
B) Rotational K.E
C) Gravitational K.E
D) Vibrational K.E
Q.20
P
N V
3
2
= <
2
1
mv2
> represents:
A) Boyle’s law.
B) Ideal gas
C) Charles law
D) Gas general equation
Q.21 The dimension of strain is:
A) [ T ]
B) [ M ]
C) [ LT-1
]
D) None.
Q.22 The ratio of applied stress to volumetric strain is called:
A) Young’s modulus
B) Shear modulus
C) Bulk modulus
D) Modulus of elasticity
Q.23 Beam of electron can be called as:
A) Positive rays
B) Cathode rays
C) Cosmic rays
D) X-rays
Q.24 Pressure of gas given by:
A)
3
2
= P N <
2
1
mv2
>
B) P = Constant K.E
C)
3
2
= P
V
N <
2
1
mv2
>
D)
3
1
= P No <
2
1
mv2
>
Q.25 ‘OR’ and ‘AND’ gates have:
A) Two outputs
B) Single output
C) Three output
D) No output
Q.26 Shunt Resistance is called:
A) Low resistance
B) High resistance
C) Bypass resistance
D) Specific resistance
Q.27 One Coulomb per second is equal to:
A) One volt B) One ampere
42
C) One Walt D) One ohm
Q.28 Ohm is defined an:
A) VC-1
B) VA-1
C) CV-1
D) AV-1
Q.29 A current carrying conductor is surrounded by:
A) Magnetic field
B) Electric field
C) Conservative field
D) Gravitational field
Q.30 Force on a charged particle having charge ‘ q ‘ moving with velocity ‘ v ‘ parallel to
magnetic field of intensity ‘ B ‘ is given by:
A) F = q vb
B) F = vb/q
C) F = q v/B
D) F = 0
Q.31 In X-ray tube electrons are accelerated by applying a:
A) High current between anode and
cathode
B) High voltage between anode and
cathode
C) High stopping potential between
anode and cathode
D) High power between anode and
cathode
Q.32 In medical science which radiations are used to locate fractures or cracks in bones or
teeth:
A) Infra-red radiations
B) Gamma radiations
C) X-rays
D) Ultra violet radiations
Q.33 The minimum wavelength of X-ray produced if 10kvp Potential difference is applied
across the anode and cathode of the tube is:
A) 1.24 x 10-10
m
B) 12.4 x 10-10
m
C) 124 x 10-10
m
D) 0.124 x 10-10
m
Q.34 Laser light is highly:
A) Directional
B) Scattered
C) Unpolarized
D) Non- directional
Q.35 A light beam from a high power laser when focused by a lens can produce:
A) A high temperature
B) A low temperature
C) A moderate temperature
D) A very low temperature
Q.36 A laser beam can be employed safely to weld a detached:
A) Bone of body
B) Finger of hand
C) Retina of eye
D) Tooth
Q.37 CT scanning is the abbreviated name of:
A) Computed Technology
B) Computed Tomography
C) Computerized Technique
D) Classical Technique
Q.38 One curie is equal to:
A) 3.70 x 1010
atoms decay in one
second
B) 3.70 x 108
atoms decay in one
second
C) 3.70 x 106
atoms decay in one
second
D) 3.70 x 104
atoms decay in one
second
Q.39 In cloud chamber, each track corresponds to the passage of:
A) One group of α− particles
B) One α
− particle
C) Two α
− particles
D) Three α
− particles
Q.40 In β – particle emission its mass of nucleus remains practically the same while its
charge changes by:
A) One unit
B) Two unit
C) Three unit
D) Four unit
Q.41 A nuclide
220
R84 decay to a new nuclide S by two α - emissions and two β − −− − emissions;
the nuclide S is:
A)
218
S84
B)
216
S84
C)
212
S82
D)
216
S82
Q.42 Beta particles are fast moving particles, called:
A) Protons
B) Electrons
C) Neutrons
D) α-Particles
Q.43 Cobalt-60 is used to:
A) Cure blood cancer
B) Cure bone cancer
C) Cure thyroid cancer
D) Cure tumor
43
Q.44 In radioactivity, the rate of decay:
A) Can be increased by magnetic field
B) Can be decreased by magnetic field
C) Can be kept constant by electric
field
D) Is not effected by electric or
magnetic field
CHEMISTRY
Q.45 The mass spectrum of lead is shown:
Y
52.3
23.6
22.6
1.5
X
204 206 207 208
What quantities are represented by X-axis and Y-axis?
X-axis Y-axis
A) Atomic number Relative abundance
B) Mass number Atomic number
C) Mass number Height of peak
D) Atomic number Mass number
Q.46 Number of atoms of oxygen in 90g of glucose is (C=12, H=1, O=16):
A) 3.011x1023
B) 6.022x1023
C) 6.022x1024
D) 1.8x1024
Q.47 A mixture of 20% NH3, 55% H2 and 25% N2 by volume has a pressure of
9.8x104
Nm-2
. What is the partial pressure of NH3 in Nm-2
?
A) 1.96x104
B) 2.45x104
C) 2.92x104
D) 4.90x104
Q.48 Density of water (H2O) is maximum at:
A) 1000
C
B) 00
C
C) 40
C
D) 140
C
Q.49 How many total number of unpaired electrons are shown in the electronic
configuration of Cr:
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q.50 Energy of s, p and d sub-shells is in the order:
A) s>p>d
B) p>s>d
C) d>p>s
D) s>p<d
Q.51 Hydrogen bonding plays a very important role in stabilizing various structures. In
which of the following case hydrogen bonding is not involved?
A) Structure of ice
B) Secondary structure of protein
C) Solid state of iodine
D) Double helix structure of DNA
Q.52 The shape of SnCl2 as predicted by valence shell electron pair repulsion theory is:
A) Linear
B) Bent
C) Tetrahedral
D) Triangular pyramidal
44
Q.53 A correct equation for the enthalpy change of formation of NH3(g) is:
A) NH4Cl(s) NH3(g) + HCl(g)
B) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
C)
2
1 N2(g) +
2
3 H2(g) NH3(g)
D) N2O(g) + 4H2(g) 2NH3(g) + H2O(l)
Q.54 Boiling point of water is 1000
C. To a sample of 500g of water 3g of urea (NH2)2CO are
added. The boiling point of solution is expected to be (N=14, C=12, O=16, H=1):
A) 1000
C
B) 100.0520
C
C) 99.520
C
D) 99.000
C
Q.55 The mole fraction of methanol in a solution containing 90g water, 92g ethanol and
96g methanol is (C=12, O=16, H=1):
A) 0.2
B) 0.3
C) 0.5
D) 1.0
Q.56 The relevant Eo
values for 3 half cells are:
Mn3+
+ e-
Mn2+
Eo
=+1.49V
Fe3+
+ e-
Fe2+
Eo
=+0.77V
Co3+ + e-
Co2+
Eo
=-0.28V
Which is the strongest oxidizing agent?
A) Mn3+
B) Fe2+
C) Co2+
D) Mn2+
Q.57 Sulphuric acid is manufactured by contact process. One stage in the contact process
involves the reaction between sulphur dioxide and oxygen.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ; ∆H= -197KJ
-1
mol
Which statement about this step is true?
A) High temperature favours the
formation of SO3
B) High pressure favours the
formation of SO3
C) No catalyst is used in this step
D) This process is carried out at 2000
C
Q.58 Kp and Kc for a gaseous reversible chemical reaction may be same or different. Select
the reaction for which the two constants have same numerical value:
A) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
B) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
C) N2 + O2 2NO
D) 2SO3 2SO2 + O2
Q.59 The oxidation of Iodine ion by H2O2 takes place according to the equation,
H2O2(aq) + 2H3O+
(aq) + 2I
-
(aq)
I2(aq) +4H2O(l)
The rate equation may be written as:
Rate = k[H2O2]
x
[H3O+]
y
[I
-
]
z
This reaction takes place in three steps:
Step 1 H2O2 + I
-
IO-
+ H2O
Step 2 IO-
+ H3O+ HIO + H2O
Step 3 HIO + H3O+
+
I
-
I2 +2H2O
What is the value of x, y and z if step 1 is the rate determining step:
x y z
A) 1 1 1
B) 1 0 1
45
C) 1 2 0
D) 2 1 1
Q.60 States of reaction were measured at different initial concentration of reactants A and
B. Data collected is given below in tabular form:
[A] [B] Initial
Rate(atm
min-1
)
0.009 0.001 0.1
0.018 0.002 0.4
0.018 0.001 0.2
0.009 0.002 0.2
Select the rate expression that corresponds to the data:
A) Rate α [A][B]
B) Rate α [A][B]
2
C) Rate α [A]
2
[B]
D) Rate α [A]
2
[B]
2
Q.61 The periodic variation in a physical property of elements with proton number 1 to 60
is shown in the figure below:
Which property is shown in the figure?
A) Melting point
B) Atomic radius
C) Boiling point
D) First ionisation energy
Q.62 Four elements of period-2 are given, select the element with highest first ionization
energy:
A) B
B) C
C) N
D) O
Q.63 An element of group IV shows the following properties:
i It is high melting.
ii It is lubricant.
iii It is used as an electrical conductor.
What could be the substance?
A) Silicon
B) Graphite
C) Tin
D) Lead
Q.64 Disinfection of water by chlorine is avoided if organic matter like phenol or humic
acid is present in water. It is due to the formation of toxic and carcinogenic products
with chlorine. Chlorine combines with humic acid to form:
A) Chloramines
B) Nitrogen trichloride
C) Chloroform
D) Carbon tetrachloride
46
Q.65 Visible spectroscopy is used to relate colour of a complex and the wavelength of
absorption. The relation between absorbed wavelength and observed colour is shown
below:
λ (nm)
Absorbed
Colour of complex
400 Green-Yellow
450 Yellow
490 Red
580 Blue
650 Green
The visible spectrum of a complex is shown. What is the colour of complex observed?
A) Green-Yellow
B) Yellow
C) Blue
D) Red
Q.66 Transition element complexes show colour. The colour shown by different elements is
different due to:
A) Different number of shells
B) Energy difference of d-orbitals
varies with nature of ligand
C) Absorbance of same wavelength
from visible light
D) Different geometry of complexes
Q.67 What is not the use of H2SO4:
A) Paint and pigments
B) Detergents
C) Food preservation
D) Dye stuff
Q.68 Fertility of acidic soil is restored by adding:
A) Lime
B) Caustic soda
C) Baking soda
D) Milk of magnesia
Q.69 Which pair of the following compounds is optically active:
i. H2N—CH2—CO2H
ii. HOCH2—CH2—CO2H
iii. CH3—CH(OH)—CO2H
HO
iv. HO CH—CH2—NH—CH3
OH
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
Q.70 Which one of the following reagents is not an electrophile:
A) NO2
+
B) CH3
+
C) SO3
D) CH3OH
47
Q.71 When ethene reacts with bromine in the presence of a little NaCl, many electrophilic
addition products are formed. Which of the following is not a possible product:
A) CH2—CH2
Br Br
B) CH2—CH2
Br OH
C) CH2—CH2
Br Cl
D) CH2—CH2
Cl OH
Q.72 Chlorination of methane in the presence of sunlight involves mechanism of:
A) Electrophilic substitution
B) Free radical substitution
C) Free radical addition
D) Free radical alkylation
Q.73 Alkaline hydrolysis of bromoethane takes place by SN2 mechanisms as given below:
CH3 CH3
CH3
OH-
+ OH------C-------Br OH—CH2 + Br
-
δ+CH2—Brδ-
H H
Intermediate
What is charge on the intermediate?
A) +2
B) +1
C) -1
D) -2
Q.74 Nucleophilic substitution of tertiary alkyl halide gives tertiary alcohol. What is the
type of this reaction:
A) SN1
B) SN2
C) Addition-elimination
D) Elimination-addition
OH
Cl Cl
Q.75 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol is strongest antiseptic present in Dettol. Which of the
Cl
following reagent is suitable for its preparation from phenol:
A) PCl5
B) SOCl2
C) HCl
D) Cl2
Q.76 Rectified spirit contains 95% ethanol in water. It is converted to absolute alcohol by:
A) Fractional distillation
B) Filtration
C) Treating with lime
D) Steam distillation
Q.77 Vanillin is a constituent of the vanilla bean and has the structure:
OH
OCH3
(Vanillin)
CHO
Which of the following reagent will not react with vanillin?
A) 2,4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine
B) [Ag(NH3)2]
+ (Tollen’s reagent)
C) Br2 in CCl4
D) Aqueous NaOH + I2
Q.78 Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished by:
A) Tollen’s test
B) Iodoform test
C) Bayer’s test
D) 2,4 DNPH test
48
Q.79 2-hydroxy propanoic acid can be prepared in the following two steps starting from
ethanal:
Step 1 Step 2
CH3—CHO CH3—CH—CN CH3—CH—CO2H
OH OH
What is the reagent and condition for the two steps?
A) HCN, Acid hydrolysis
B) NaCN in alcohol, oxidation with
H2O2
C) HCN, basic hydrolysis
D) NaCN in alcohol, reduction Sn+HCl
Q.80 Highest acid strength in aqueous medium is associated with:
A) CH3COOH
B) ClCH2COOH
C) Cl2CHCOOH
D) CH3—CH2—COOH
Q.81 20 α-amino acids found in protein are bifunctional compounds having at least a
carboxylic acid group and an amino group. Which of the following α-amino acid has
the secondary amino group in its structure?
A) Valine
B) Alanine
C) Proline
D) Glycine
Q.82 On hydrolysis, protein yield amino acids. In all proteins about 20 different amino
acids are found. Which is not a characteristic property of these 20 amino acids?
A) All are optically active
B) Those optically active have L-
configuration
C) Proline has secondary amino group
at 2-position
D) They decompose before melting
Q.83 When an alkali is added to the aqueous solution of an amino acid, net charge on a
molecule of amino acid is:
A) +ve
B) –ve
C) Zero
D) May be +ve or -ve
Q.84 A reaction of an addition polymer is shown:
What is the structure of the monomer?
A) CH2—CH3
B) CH=CH2
C) C Ξ CH
D) CH=CH
Q.85 Which of the following functional groups is present in fats?
A) Carboxylic acid
B) Aldehyde or ketone
C) Alcohol
D) Ester
Q.86 Starch is a mixture of two polysaccharides, amylase and amylopectin. Amylase has
linear structure where as amylopectin is branched. In amylopectin, branching is due
to:
A) α-1,4 glycosidic linkage
B) β-1,4 glycosidic linkage
C) α-1,6 glycosidic linkage
D) β-1,6 glycosidic linkage
Q.87 Natural rain water has a pH of 5.6. What is the pH of the acid rain?
A) 1-2
B) 6-7
C) 8-9
D) 4-5
Q.88 Four statements regarding the characteristics of ozone are given, select the
INCORRECT:
A) Ozone is produced in most of the
tropical regions
B) In polar regions it causes various
health problems
C) It reduces the durability of paint
D) It is useful to plants
49
ENGLISH
Q.89 He was _______________ of all valuable possessions.
A) Robbed.
B) Stolen.
C) Pinched.
D) Established.
Q.90 The presence of armed guards ____________ us from doing anything disruptive.
A) Defeated.
B) Excited.
C) Irritated.
D) Prevented.
Q.91 Our flight was _____________ from Lahore to Islamabad airport.
A) Diverted.
B) Reflected.
C) Deflected.
D) Shifted.
Q.92 I am _____________ forward to our picnic scheduled in next month.
A) Looking.
B) Planning.
C) Seeing.
D) Going.
SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some segments of each
sentence are underlined. Your task is to indentify that underlined segment of
the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the
bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ
Response form.
Q.93 They did not guess how closely he had kept in touch with across the road.
A B C D
Q.94 He proved that if only germs were excluded of wounds, inflammation was averted.
A B C D
Q.95 The man felt his hair flutter and the tissues of his body drew tight as if he were standing at the
A B C
centre of a vacuum.
D
Q.96 He came to the hurdles that he remember, over which once he had one so easy a victory.
A B C D
In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose
the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the
MCQ Response Form.
Q.97
A) He lacked both the training and the equipment needed in the job.
B) He lacked both the training and the equipment needed by the job.
C) He lacked both the training and the equipment needed on the job.
D) He lacked both the training and the equipment needed for the job.
Q.98
A) They tried to pacify him for kindness and affection.
B) They tried to pacify him in kindness and affection.
C) They tried to pacify him by kindness and affection.
D) They tried to pacify him with kindness and affection.
Q.99
A) Then he sat down in corner and remained queit.
B) Then he sat down in corner and remained quite.
C) Then he sat down in corner and remain quiet.
D) Then he sat down in corner and remained quiet.
Q.100
A) He was drenched with the hotness of his fear.
B) He was drenched in the hotness of his fear.
C) He was drenched by the hotness of his fear.
D) He was drenched off the hotness of his fear.
50
In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are
given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word
and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
Q.101 VEXING
A) Annoying
B) Aggressive
C) Viable
D) Waxy
Q.102 VAGUE
A) Respectful
B) Uncertain
C) Warlock
D) Snow white
Q.103 MANGLED
A) Dodged
B) Grained
C) Indisputable
D) Damaged
Q.104 PRODIGIOUS
A) Productive
B) Enormous
C) Prudential
D) Waddle
Q.105 ASTOUNDED
A) Shocked
B) Discarded
C) Assured
D) Attracted
Q.106 SAGACITY
A) Foolishness
B) Large City
C) Onions
D) Wisdom
Q.107 GRIM
A) Gratis
B) Restless
C) Severe
D) Grater
Q.108 INDOLENTLY
A) Lazily
B) Indecently
C) Ideally
D) Gaily
Q.109 PERISH
A) Furious
B) Come to death
C) Secret
D) Frustrated
Q.110 DOZE
A) Dogged
B) Diet
C) Sleep
D) Medicine to be taken
BIOLOGY
Q.111 The branch of biology that deals with cell functions is called:
A) Histology.
B) Physiology.
C) Molecular biology.
D) Microbiology.
Q.112 Different tissues having related functions together form:
A) Organ.
B) Individual.
C) Organelles.
D) Molecules.
Q.113 Statement made by a scientist that may or may not be true is:
A) Theory.
B) Hypothesis.
C) Scientific law.
D) Statement.
Q.114 The method by which pests are destroyed by using some living organisms is called:
A) Bio-pesticide.
B) Integrated management.
C) Biological control.
D) Pasteurization.
Q.115 Robert Hook was the first person to see cells in:
A) Various plants.
B) Animals.
C) Fungi.
D) Cork.
Q.116 The concept “OMNIS cellula-e-cellala” means that, new cells are formed from:
A) Non living materials.
B) Dead organic matter.
C) Pre-existing living cells.
D) As the result of chemical reactions.
51
Q.117 In generalized plant cell the nucleus is:
A) Present in middle of the cell.
B) Displaced to the side of the cell.
C) Absent.
D) Modified into endoplasmic
reticulum.
Q.118 Plasma membrane is found in the cells of:
A) Animals only.
B) Plants only.
C) Both in plants and animals.
D) Bacteria only.
Q.119 The semicircular channels and system of tubes found in cytoplasm are known as:
A) Ribosomes.
B) Glyoxisomes.
C) Endoplasmic reticulum.
D) Vacuoles.
Q.120 The structures that are involved in the manufacture and supply of energy to the cell
are:
A) Centrioles.
B) Plastids.
C) Nucleolus.
D) Mitochondria.
Q.121 In a plant cell chlorophyll is present in:
A) Chromoplasts.
B) Leucoplasts.
C) Stroma.
D) Chloroplasts.
Q.122 Cytokinesis is a division of:
A) Cytoplasm.
B) Chromosomes.
C) Nucleus.
D) Nucleolus.
Q.123 During cell division the plant cell is not seen to have:
A) Spindle fibers.
B) Chromatids.
C) Centromere.
D) Centrioles.
Q.124 Which human disease is due to meiotic errors:
A) Typhoid.
B) Cholera.
C) Measles.
D) Down’s syndrome.
Q.125 The basic element of all organic compounds is:
A) Oxygen.
B) Nitrogen.
C) Hydrogen.
D) Carbon.
Q.126 The most abundant carbohydrate in nature is:
A) Cellulose.
B) Glycogen.
C) Fructose.
D) Starch.
Q.127 Terpenoids are important group of compounds that are made up of simple repeating
units:
A) Acylglycerols.
B) Isoprenoids.
C) Phospholipids.
D) Ketones.
Q.128 The number of types of amino acid that are found to occur in cells are:
A) 20.
B) 25.
C) 100.
D) 170.
Q.129 Biochemically enzymes are:
A) Carbohydrates.
B) Fatty acids.
C) Hormones.
D) Proteins.
Q.130 The presence of enzymes:
A) Slows down the rate of reaction.
B) Increases the rate of reaction.
C) Does not show any change.
D) Completely stops the reaction.
Q.131 Lock and key model of enzyme reacting with substrate was originally proposed by:
A) Emil Fisher.
B) Koshland.
C) Robert Hook.
D) Robert Brown.
Q.132 The major RNA in the cell is ribosomal RNA. It makes up:
A) 80% of total RNAs.
B) 58% of total RNAs.
C) 90% of total RNAs.
D) 40% of total RNAs.
Q.133 Optimum pH for pepsin to work efficiently is:
A) 4.50
B) 2.00
C) 6.80
D) 9.00
52
Q.134 Viruses are simplest organisms and:
A) Have their own enzymes.
B) Have cell membrane but not cell
wall.
C) Undergo cell division.
D) Are only DNA or RNA particles
without cellular structure.
Q.135 The most ancient bacteria are:
A) Eubacteria.
B) Archaeobacteria.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Streptococci.
Q.136 The bacteria that cause diseases in human beings, are called:
A) Photosynthetic bacteria.
B) Chemosynthetic bacteria.
C) Facultative bacteria.
D) Pathogenic bacteria.
Q.137 The mutualistic association between certain fungi and roots of vascular plants is
called:
A) Lichens.
B) Parasitism.
C) Budding.
D) Mycorrhizae.
Q.138 Sponges which belong to phylum Porifera have:
A) Maximum capacity to regenerate.
B) Very little capacity to regenerate.
C) Moderate capacity to regenerate.
D) No regeneration capacity.
Q.139 The platyhelminthes liver fluke is:
A) Ectoparasite in humans.
B) Blood parasite.
C) Parasite of respiratory tract.
D) Parasite in the bile duct.
Q.140 Which of the following is of economic importance to man:
A) Daphnia.
B) Millipede.
C) Silkworm.
D) Scorpion.
Q.141 The name Nicotiana tabacum is given to:
A) Potato.
B) Tomato.
C) Red pepper.
D) Tobacco.
Q.142 Family Gramineae has:
A) Only wheat.
B) Only corn.
C) Only rice.
D) All of the above.
Q.143 During swallowing the food travels from oral cavity to the stomach by way of
oesophagus:
A) Very quickly.
B) By anti-peristalsis.
C) Pushed down by pharynx.
D) Moving due to peristalsis.
Q.144 The pancreas is a:
A) Part of Stomach.
B) Part of Small intestine.
C) Part of Large intestine.
D) Separate gland.
Q.145 The term chyme is applied to:
A) Semi-digestive food in oral cavity.
B) Semi-solid food in stomach.
C) Semi-digested food in the small
intestine.
D) Completely digested food in the
last part of small intestine.
Q.146 Villi and micro villi are present:
A) In pharynx.
B) In small intestine (jejunum).
C) In oesophagus.
D) In large intestine.
Q.147 Exchange of gases during orginismic respiration is carried out by:
A) Diffusion.
B) Active transport.
C) Osmosis.
D) Facilitated diffusion.
Q.148 The opening in the oral cavity (throat) through which air enters the wind pipe is
called:
A) Glottis.
B) Bronchus.
C) Larynx.
D) Pharynx.
Q.149 The double layer of thin membranes which line and cover lungs are called:
A) Diaphragm.
B) Alveoli.
C) Pleura.
D) Bronchioles.
Q.150 Transportation of oxygen from lungs to the tissue cells is by means of:
A) Complete blood.
B) Lymph.
C) Red blood cells.
D) White blood cells.
53
Q.151 Podocytes are present in:
A) Epithelium of renal capsule.
B) Endothelium of blood capillary.
C) Basement membrane of blood
capillary.
D) Epithelium of the PCT.
Q.152 Which of the following are the functions of proximal convoluted tubule:
A) Ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
B) Selective reabsorption and
retention of water.
C) Selective reabsorption and active
tubular secretion.
D) Reabsorption of water by the help
of ADH.
Q.153 The walls of descending limb of loop of Henle are:
A) Permeable to water as well as to
sodium and chloride.
B) Permeable to water but
impermeable to salts.
C) Impermeable to water and
permeable to sodium and chloride.
D) Impermeable to both water and
salts.
Q.154 ADH affects which of the following for retention of water:
A) Walls of collecting duct.
B) Walls of loop of Henle.
C) Glomerulus.
D) Proximal convoluted tubule.
Q.155 The counter-current multiplier mechanism is shown by which of the following:
A) Loop of Henle.
B) Proximal convoluted tubule.
C) Distal convoluted tubule.
D) Bowman’s capsule.
Q.156 Mechanoreceptors detect stimulus of:
A) Smell.
B) Light.
C) Pressure (touch).
D) Cold and warmth.
Q.157 The effectors in the human body which respond to a stimulus are:
A) Glands only.
B) Muscles only.
C) Both muscles and glands.
D) Bones.
Q.158 Loss of memory (Dementia) is also known as:
A) Alzheimer’s disease.
B) Epilepsy.
C) Parkinson’s disease.
D) Graves disease.
Q.159 A mix nerve consists of:
A) Motor and sensory nerve fibers.
B) Sensory and associative nerve
fibers.
C) Motor and associative nerve fibers.
D) Dendrons and dendrites.
Q.160 Which one of the following hormones is essential for the successful production of
sperms:
A) LH (Luteinizing Hormone).
B) Gonadotropin hormone.
C) Testosterone.
D) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
Q.161 Treponema pallidum cause a disease (sexually transmitted) called:
A) Genital Herpes.
B) AIDS.
C) Gonorrhoa.
D) Syphilis.
Q.162 The fertilization of ovum takes place in the proximal part of the:
A) Uterus.
B) Oviduct.
C) Placenta.
D) Urethra.
Q.163 Pregnancy is maintained by the:
A) LTH (Luteotropic hormone).
B) Progesterone.
C) Corticosteroids.
D) LH and FSH.
Q.164 At which month of pregnancy the human embryo is referred to as the fetus:
A) 3rd
month.
B) 4th
month.
C) 6th
month.
D) 2nd
month.
Q.165 Muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of:
A) Lactic acid.
B) ATP.
C) Glucose.
D) Fats.
Q.166 Diameter of skeletal muscle fiber is:
A) 2-50 µm.
B) 30-90 µm.
C) 10-100 µm.
D) 1-80 µm.
Q.167 Lining of digestive system contain the:
A) Skeletal muscles.
B) Skeletal and cardiac muscles.
C) Cardiac muscles.
D) Smooth muscles.
54
Q.168 The vertebral column consists of _______ vertebrae:
A) 33
B) 30
C) 28
D) 38
Q.169 The most abundant type of bone found on moveable joints is:
A) Bone.
B) Hyaline cartilage.
C) Fibro-cartilage.
D) Bone and fibro-cartilage.
Q.170 Which of the following is a hormone:
A) Gastric juice.
B) Pancreatic juice.
C) Bile.
D) Insulin.
Q.171 The hormones in the human body are produced by:
A) Brain only.
B) Liver only.
C) Pancreas only.
D) Different endocrine glands.
Q.172 Insulin is a hormone produced by:
A) Thyroid gland.
B) Parathyroid.
C) Adrenaline gland.
D) Pancreas.
Q.173 The hormone called Parathormone regulates calcium level in the blood. This hormone
is produced by:
A) Gonads.
B) Gut.
C) Thyroid gland.
D) Parathyroid.
Q.174 The chemical nature of antibody is:
A) Glycoproteins.
B) Glycolipids.
C) Lipoproteins.
D) Polysaccharides.
Q.175 Which chemicals are secreted by T-helper cells to stimulate B-plasma cells to divide:
A) Interferons.
B) Cytokines.
C) Histamines.
D) Fibrin.
Q.176 Which of the following is described as vaccination:
A) Artificial active immunity.
B) Natural active immunity.
C) Artificial passive immunity.
D) Natural passive immunity.
Q.177 B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are formed:
A) Before birth in bone marrow.
B) Before birth in thymus gland.
C) After maturity in blood.
D) After birth in blood.
Q.178 The antibodies provided to infant through mother’s milk is an example of:
A) Natural passive immunity.
B) Artificial passive immunity.
C) Natural active immunity.
D) Artificial active immunity.
Q.179 Which of the following is not the end product of glycolysis:
A) Pyruvate.
B) ATP.
C) Oxaloacetate.
D) Reduced NAD.
Q.180 Which of the following process does occur for the formation of acetyl Co-A from
pyruvate:
A) Decarboxylation.
B) Hydrogenation.
C) Carboxylation.
D) Deaminaiton.
Q.181 At the beginning of Krebs cycle, acetyl Co-A combines with which substance to form
citrate (6-C):
A) Oxaloacetate.
B) Oxoglutarate.
C) Fumarate.
D) Succinate.
Q.182 Which of the following are the end products of light dependent stage, used in the
Calvin cycle to change glycerate-3-phosphates into triose phosphates:
A) NADPH + ATP
B) NADH + ATP
C) RuBp + ATP
D) O2 + NADPH
Q.183 Which of the following is not the end product of non-cyclic photophosphorylation:
A) Reduced NADP.
B) ATP.
C) O2.
D) CO2.
Q.184 Enzymes restriction endonucleases were isolated from:
A) Viruses.
B) Bacteria.
C) Fungi.
D) Protozoan.
55
Q.185 During polymerase chain reaction, how DNA double helix is separated:
A) By heat treatment.
B) By use of enzyme DNA Polymerase.
C) By use of enzyme DNA Helicase.
D) By use of enzyme DNA Ligase.
Q.186 Which enzyme is used to join the desired gene into the plasmid DNA during genetic
engineering:
A) DNA Helicase.
B) DNA Ligase.
C) DNA Polymerase.
D) Taq Polymerase.
Q.187 Which of the following is an example of benefits of transgenic organisms produced
through genetic engineering:
A) Production of antibiotics.
B) Production of insulin.
C) Production of anti-rabies vaccine.
D) Production of anti-malarial drugs.
Q.188 In cystic fibrosis transportation of which ion is faulty, resulting into the production of
disease:
A) Chloride.
B) Fluoride.
C) Calcium.
D) Magnesium.
Q.189 A group of inter-breeding individuals occurring together in a space and time is called:
A) Community.
B) Population.
C) Niche.
D) Species.
Q.190 Which of these is biotic factor of the ecosystem:
A) Air.
B) Water.
C) Soil.
D) Photosynthetic plants.
Q.191 An association between organisms which brings benefit to both the organisms is
known as:
A) Predation.
B) Commensalism.
C) Grazing.
D) Symbiosis.
Q.192 When succession is completed, a great diversity of plants and a stable community is
seen, which is called:
A) Hydrosphere.
B) Pioneers.
C) Climax community.
D) Secondary succession.
Q.193 A thin layer of earth in which all living organisms exists is called:
A) Ecosystem.
B) Biosphere.
C) Habitat.
D) Xerosere.
Q.194 The branch of biology that provide evidence through fossil record is called:
A) Vestigial structures.
B) Comparative anatomy.
C) Biogeography.
D) Palaeontology.
Q.195 One of the factors given below does not effect gene frequency:
A) Mutation.
B) Migration.
C) Genetic drift.
D) Food.
Q.196 Charles Darwin gave the:
A) Theory of special creation.
B) Theory of Natural selection.
C) Inheritance of acquired characters.
D) Cell theory.
Q.197 A gene which has multiple phenotypic effect is called:
A) Pleiotropic.
B) Epistasis.
C) Multiple allele.
D) Locus.
Q.198 Change in the nature of gene is known as:
A) Incomplete dominance.
B) Pleiotropy.
C) Mutation.
D) Polygenic trait.
56
APTITUDE
Q.199 A terminally ill patient is under the care of a doctor. He has been diagnosed as having
advanced cancer and doctor thinks he has not very long to live. Patient wants to
know what is wrong with him. One of the relatives approaches the doctor and
requests not to reveal the diagnosis to the patient so that patient is not distressed
and dies peacefully. What should the doctor do?
A) Respect the wish of the relative
B) Tell the patient what is wrong with
him
C) Refer the matter to hospital
administration
D) Ask another doctor to deal with the
matter
Q.200 Medical students have to work very hard. According to majority of medical students,
which of the following is considered to be the best reward for their hard work?
A) They become famous
B) They pass examinations
C) They have better marriage
proposals
D) They become rich
Q.201 Mr. Shafqat owns a departmental store. He is also a known diabetic and has recently
developed a depressive episode. He feels pleased with the treatment his physician
has suggested and before leaving the clinic offers him a 30% discount on all items
from his store. What would be the appropriate response for the doctor?
A) Promptly accept the offer and take
spouse for shopping
B) Politely decline the offer.
C) Tell the patient that he will shop
once he is well.
D) Tell the patient that his other
relatives would like to avail the
facility.
Q.202 A distinguished physician in Lahore was approached by a representative of a
pharmaceutical company and offered a fully sponsored three day package at a tourist
resort for him and his family. The trip had an academic appeal to it since the company
had also decided to arrange a ‘panel discussion’ on a recently launched drug. Based
on your knowledge of ethics, what should be the doctor’s response?
A) Politely decline the offer.
B) Accept the offer if other colleagues
participate.
C) Seek permission from the hospital
administration.
D) Accept the offer.
Q.203 Dr. Shaista possesses eloquent speaking skills and often appears on television shows
related to health in order to educate the public. A representative of a cosmetic
company approached the doctor and explained how her appearance for a few seconds
in a television commercial can benefit both her and the viewers. By accepting such an
offer the doctor’s action would be:
A) In line with the principles of ethics.
B) Ethical only if the doctor refused
the monetary benefit.
C) Ethical if the product is well-tested
and safe.
D) Unethical.
Q.204 A young man admitted in a ward is found to have AIDS. Using the principles of ethics,
the most suitable action is to:
A) Persuade and counsel the patient
to report the matter to his wife
himself.
B) Give news in newspaper to protect
the community.
C) Directly inform his wife.
D) Ask the patient not to disclose the
information to anybody.
Q.205 An elderly lady is admitted in surgical unit with diagnosis of cancer. A treating doctor
suddenly informed her that she will die in few months time; first psychological
reaction in this dying patient will be:
A) Anger.
B) Depression.
C) Acceptance.
D) Denial.
Q.206 Effective communication skills are considered essentially important for a doctor. The
most important reason for a doctor to develop effective communication with his
patients is:
A) It is a vital tool in clinical settings.
B) It forms the basis of interaction
between the doctor and patient.
C) Doctor can convey his message on
various health topics in better way.
D) Doctor will gain respect and
popularity in the public.
57
Q.207 Biopsychosocial (BPS) model gained importance because:
A) It was a tribute to the great
professional George Engel
B) It was introduced in early nineteen
seventy’s (1970’s) when there was
a need to introduce a change
C) It criticized the traditional biological
approach
D) It emphasized on integrating
behavioural sciences with biological
sciences
Q.208 Counseling is considered as:
A) Limited supportive activity, that
improves person’s understanding of
his issues
B) Giving advice to patient to solve his
problems.
C) A method to encourage patients to
feel healthy.
D) A process of making people less
emotional.
Q.209 Thinking takes place:
A) While dreaming.
B) In sleeping hours.
C) Round the clock.
D) During hypnosis.
Q.210 Traditionally doctors are not expected to charge from:
A) Patients
B) Government officials
C) Medical students
D) Politicians
Row 1
Q.211 If the pattern of dots shown above is continued so that each row after Row one
contains 1 dot more than the row immediately above it, which row will contain 12
dots?
A) Seven
B) Eight
C) Nine
D) Ten
Q.212 2-8 = ________?
A) -8
B) -6
C) -1/8
D) 1/8
Q.213 The amount of water used by one person in a domestic bath would fill a cuboid that
measures 50cm x 20 cm x 150 cm. The volume of water used in one person’s bath is:
A) 15 litres
B) 150 litres
C) 1500 litres
D) 15000 litres
Q.214 Javed works in a pharmacy. He gets a wage of 5000 rupees per week plus 2%
commission of the value of his sales for that week. His total wage for one week was
9400 rupees. Work out the value of his sales for that week in rupees.
A) 13400
B) 13800
C) 220000
D) 250000
Q.215 If n+3=nx3, then n=
A) 0.5
B) 1.5
C) 2
D) 2.5
58
Statement for Q.No. 216-220:
The staff of a ward presently consists of three doctors (L, M and N) and five nurses (O, P, Q,
R and S). Management is planning to open a new ward in hospital sending three nurses and
two doctors from the present staff. To do so they plan to separate certain individuals who do
not function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new ward:
i. Doctors L and N are constantly finding faults with one another therefore should not be
sent together to the new ward.
ii. N and P function well alone but not as a team. They should be separated.
iii. O and R have not been on speaking terms for many months. They should not go
together.
iv. Since O and Q have been competing for a promotion, they should not be in one team.
Based on the information given above find the correct answers to the following questions:
Q.216 If M insists on staying back then how many combinations are possible?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) None
Q.217 If L is to be moved as one of the doctors, which of the following CANNOT be a
possible working unit?
A) LMOPS
B) LMPQS
C) LMORS
D) LMPRS
Q.218 If N is sent to the new ward which member of the staff CANNOT be sent?
A) O
B) M
C) Q
D) R
Q.219 If O is sent to the new ward then which of the following is a possible team?
A) LMOPR
B) MNOQS
C) MNOPS
D) LMOPS
Q.220 If both N and Q are moved to the new ward, how many combinations are possible?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
By : ADEEL ABBAS www.allvupastpapers.blogspot.com AdeelAbbasbk@gmail.com
No comments:
Post a Comment
PLEASE COMMENT ABOUT YOUR VISIT AND MY SITE
Note: Only a member of this blog may post a comment.